Is an owner of a property entitled to make a sale of the property himself notwithstanding that he has listed the property with an agent?
Saskatchewan, Canada
The following excerpt is from Barager v. Wallace, 1919 CanLII 209 (SK CA):
That an owner of property is, in default of stipulation to the contrary, entitled to make a sale of the property himself notwithstanding that he has listed it with an agent for sale, is established by Brinson v. Davies (1911) 105 L.T 134 27 T.L.R. 442.
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