Does the fact that a police officer had no intention of allowing a drug dealer to get away with cocaine have any bearing on the issue of possession of the drug?
California, United States of America
The following excerpt is from People v. Austin, 23 Cal.App.4th 1596, 28 Cal.Rptr.2d 885 (Cal. App. 1994):
2 Defendants concede the fact the officers had no intention of allowing them to get away with the cocaine does not bear on the issue of defendants' possession. (People v. Wesley (1990) 224 Cal.App.3d 1130, 1145-1146, 274 Cal.Rptr. 326.)
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